Property Rights

peachesnew · Joined: 19 Apr 2006 Posts: 1 0.07 Dollars($)

My husband and I have been married for 2 years, I purchased a home 4 years before we got married. We are now talking divorce and he says he was informed by an attorney that he gets a share of the equity in my home. Is this true. Why would he be entitled to something I had before we married?

blue · Posted: Wed Apr 19, 2006 10:20 am Post subject:

Hi,

Was your husband added to the title of that house? If he was not added and didn't make any contributions towards the house, then I don't think he should get any share of equity on a separate property.

But these involve complex technical aspects and you should consult your own lawyer on the issue.

Blue

Bill · Posted: Wed Apr 19, 2006 10:54 am Post subject:

Peaches,

Generally speaking (and depending on your location) only property acquired during the marriage is joint property where your husband may have interest.

Get an attorney a.s.a.p!

Good luck.

helping_user · Posted: Wed Apr 19, 2006 8:35 pm Post subject:

Hi Peaches

I agree with Bill. Property owned before marriage and the individual gifts during marriage are considered as separate property. And generally not subject to division at the time of divorce.

So there in no question arise of getting a share of the equity from your home.

Try to consult with an attorney as soon as possible.

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