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Guest

My wife bought a home in 1985, a few years before we were married in 1988.
I was never put on the title but I shared in the mortgage, taxes and
insurance. We sold it at a profit in 1999, co-mingled the funds and are
going to divorce in 2007. Does Moore Marsden apply in this situation and
will I owe her whatever the formula comes out to?

Regards, mike

miller_st · Joined: 17 Jan 2007 Posts: 918 168.95 Dollars($)

Hi Mike,

You may have to pay her if you are living in a community property state.

It seems you posted this question yesterday also; some of other community members had given their suggestions on it. Please read this page to know what they have said - http://www.mortgagefit.com/postdeal/mooremarsdenrule-divorce.html

Miller

adonis · Posted: Fri Mar 16, 2007 12:50 am Post subject:

yup, I found some information given there.

Guest

The forum is a brihtger place thanks to your posts. Thanks!

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