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I have been divorced for 13 years. At the time of the divorce, I signed a quitclaim deed and my former spouse was ordered to pay me my share of the house, which he did. Yesterday I received a call from a lending institution stating my former spouse is wanting to refinance; I was told that i need to sign another form stating the money was in fact given to me at the time of divorce. Does this really have to happen? I live in Michigan if that makes any difference.

raymond · Posted: Wed Feb 10, 2010 11:55 am Post subject:

>>Does this really have to happen?

Yes - if the Underwriter is asking for it, it's required. Since your ex did his part and gave you your 50%, it'd be a nice courtesy gesture to sign the paper for him.

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