Moore-Marsden oddball question

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Hello,
I've got an unusual situation. I'm going through the process of divorce atm. My spouse and I lived together prior to marriage and purchased the house three years prior to the marriage. The house was purchased by both of us, however I contributed a much larger share of the downpayment then he did. (65 - 70% more then his contribution). Each of our payments were transferred from our own separate accounts to the joint account we used to pay monthly bills from. (I have records of this)

Since this happened prior to marriage am I entitled to a larger share of the house since I contributed most of the down payment? (I know Moore-Marsden interest would apply for the periods after we married)

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the money from the down payments were in separate accounts under each of our own names. We then transferred from those accounts into the joint account in both of names and the check for the down payment was drafted from there.

adonis · Posted: Tue May 06, 2008 10:32 pm Post subject:

Welcome Frieda,

I don't think the Moore Marsden interest law here because the house was not purchased during marriage but you bought it 3 years prior to that.

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