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lsilvey · Joined: 25 Sep 2009 Posts: 1 1.31 Dollars($)

I have property mortgage at a local bank. I sold my property on contract and the man is paying on the mortgage loan. He has also resold my property and tells the new "owners" that he has clear title/deed to the property of which he does not until the mortgage is paid for. IS IT LEGAL FOR HIM TO RESELL MY PROPERTY WHILE IT IS STILL BEING PAID FOR??

what is my recourse? He has not followed through with his end of "our" contract.

gmakerley · Posted: Fri Sep 25, 2009 2:38 pm Post subject:

so you did something without legal representation, right?
your "buyer" also did something that his "buyer" decided on doing without legal representation as well.

don't you think it's about time to involve the legal profession in this fiasco? no he cannot sell property that he doesn't own. but does he really own it or not? well, not now, because he sold it, i guess.

your best recourse, seriously, is to engage the services of a lawyer right away. it's pretty clear to me that if you have a mortgage on this property, then he doesn't have "clear title" and cannot sell it. but it's a quagmire, and it's not getting any better, so you need to act quickly.

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