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Moore Marsden rule before Marriage

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Icon Mini Profile rb7375





Joined: 30 May 2010

Posts: 2

1.56 Dollars($)
Post Posted: Sun May 30, 2010 12:11 pm    Post subject: Moore Marsden rule before Marriage
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In 2005, my girlfriend and I began comingling our money (mostly mine) into a joint bank account. We had no verbal or written agreement. In 2006, I purchased a home. Her name has never been on the deed or mortgage. I used our joint bank account for the down payment and all mortgage payments. We wed in 2007, separated in 2010 and are now finalizing our divorce.

We agree that I will keep my house and we agree how much I owe her per the Moore Marsden rule for all mortgage payments made between our marriage date and our separation date.

Our question - Does the Moore Marsden rule apply to what occurred before the marriage date?

RB
Icon Mini Profile adonis
adonis




Joined: 22 Oct 2005



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Location: ALASKA
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Post Posted: Sun May 30, 2010 9:22 pm    Post subject:
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Welcome rb,

As far as I know, the Moore Marsden Rule does not apply for what occurred before the marriage date. I would suggest you to contact your attorney and check out the details with him. He will help you in a better way in this matter.

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Procrastination is the enemy of your financial success
Icon Mini Profile rb7375





Joined: 30 May 2010

Posts: 2

1.56 Dollars($)
Post Posted: Mon May 31, 2010 7:07 am    Post subject:
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Adonis - Thanks for the quick reply.

My attorney says "we'll address that if she goes there". She has repeatedly been mentioning it so I suspect she will "go there". I've seen our legal fees on both sides be totally outrageous even on items that are easy to determine, like the Moore Marsden calculation after marriage.

I believe you are correct but I'd like to determine for sure before I trigger another string of letters between the our lawyers that costs us another $5,000 each about a point that is invalid anyway.

RB
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