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Moore Marsden rule before Marriage

Posted on: 30th May, 2010 12:11 pm
In 2005, my girlfriend and I began comingling our money (mostly mine) into a joint bank account. We had no verbal or written agreement. In 2006, I purchased a home. Her name has never been on the deed or mortgage. I used our joint bank account for the down payment and all mortgage payments. We wed in 2007, separated in 2010 and are now finalizing our divorce.

We agree that I will keep my house and we agree how much I owe her per the Moore Marsden rule for all mortgage payments made between our marriage date and our separation date.

Our question - Does the Moore Marsden rule apply to what occurred before the marriage date?

RB
Welcome rb,

As far as I know, the Moore Marsden Rule does not apply for what occurred before the marriage date. I would suggest you to contact your attorney and check out the details with him. He will help you in a better way in this matter.
Posted on: 30th May, 2010 09:22 pm
Adonis - Thanks for the quick reply.

My attorney says "we'll address that if she goes there". She has repeatedly been mentioning it so I suspect she will "go there". I've seen our legal fees on both sides be totally outrageous even on items that are easy to determine, like the Moore Marsden calculation after marriage.

I believe you are correct but I'd like to determine for sure before I trigger another string of letters between the our lawyers that costs us another $5,000 each about a point that is invalid anyway.

RB
Posted on: 31st May, 2010 07:07 am
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