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nancyaborges · Joined: 13 Nov 2009 Posts: 1 1.34 Dollars($)

My husband & I have been married 5 years, and he has been sole owner of his house for 15 years. As a condition of the refinance, the lender required that I sign an interspousal individual grant deed to my husband. Did I sign away my future rights to the house & what happens if my husband dies first or we divorce since my name is not on mortgage or deed?
Thank you much!!

Niicss · Posted: Mon Nov 16, 2009 1:54 am Post subject:

Signing an interspousal deed in your husband's favor means that you've signed away your rights to the property. It will now be considered as your husband's separate property. In case of a divorce, you won't be able to claim any rights to the property. It is same in case your husband dies first.

Guest

We got married last 2005 in Nevada.. And just last 2008, my husband asked me to signed for the interspousal deed..What could be the effect of this in me & my kids?
thank you!

smithsussane · Posted: Tue Nov 09, 2010 2:04 am Post subject:

Hi JOCELYN!

Welcome to forums!

If you sign the inter-spousal transfer deed, then you won't remain the owner of the property any longer. You won't be able to claim any ownership rights to your husband's property.

Feel free to ask if you've further queries.

Sussane

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Lender required I sign interspousal individual grant deed before refinance