Posted on: 10th Feb, 2020 02:58 pm
Purchased the house in 2003 for $319,000. Put down $17,000 on my own. Value of the house at marriage was $266,000, so less than what was purchased for. No principle payments were made until a few years after marriage, $34,974. Value at time of separation is $495,000. Does that mean she is entitled to more, than had the house been worth more then the purchase price at the time of marriage? When I do the calculations online, it will not allow me to put an amount less than the purchase price for the value at the time of marriage. Does this question even make sense?