Posted on: 06th Feb, 2008 06:08 pm
my now ex-husband purchased property when we were married. the divorce was final 4 months after this sale. because we were offically married at the time of the sale, i was forced to co-sign on the mortgage as co-borrower, but i did not sign the mortgage note. after the divorce was final, we submitted a quit claim deed to take me off the property. now, it is going into foreclosure, and because my name was listed on the original mortgage- i received a summons. how am i responsible? what should i do? will this effect my credit?
Hi Jenny,
Your query has been replied to in the given page:
http://www.mortgagefit.com/predeal/about49531.html
Take a look at it. Hope it helps you.
Your query has been replied to in the given page:
http://www.mortgagefit.com/predeal/about49531.html
Take a look at it. Hope it helps you.
my ex-boyfriend and i bought a house in feb. 2006. we split in jan. 2007. i signed the quit claim deed on feb 26th 2007. i've had nothing to do with the ex or the property since. he lost the house and its on my credit report. who is responsible for notifying me? and why was i never informed of the foreclosure? it was posted on my credit report in march of 2011...i just found out a few weeks ago when i went to apply for a mortgage of my own. i'm so upset, i wanna cry. i don't know what to do. not contacting/notifying me has to be illegal, right?
Hi jamiemaries,
If your name is still mentioned on the mortgage docs, then you will be considered liable for the mortgage. It is your lender who is responsible to notify you about the foreclosure. The lender cannot foreclose the property without informing you.
If your name is still mentioned on the mortgage docs, then you will be considered liable for the mortgage. It is your lender who is responsible to notify you about the foreclosure. The lender cannot foreclose the property without informing you.
Post Your Comment