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before i get married, i sign the print-up. what his is his, what mine is mine.

Posted on: 14th Jul, 2011 02:38 pm
but i did not know if after married we have to share with
all property i bought since married, with my own money.
no mortgage. my husband wanna get divorce and ask me
if i just give him a half of all the property i have. this is not right to me. He never paid anything in my household.
He owe child support, and the child support took my money because we file joint for income tax. He never has income.
what i supposed to do with my property? is that true, he has 50 % of all? thank you for help.
Hi jdmboss!

Welcome to forums!

If you have signed a pre-nuptial agreement before your marriage, then you won't have to give any share of your property to him. Nevertheless, you should contact an attorney and show him your pre-nuptial agreement and check out what you should do in this case.

Feel free to ask if you've further queries.

Sussane
Posted on: 14th Jul, 2011 10:01 pm
Please read the second sentence that Sussane wrote and ignore the first. Your attorney (if you have one) (and get one right away if you don't) is the person who can tell you what you need to know.

That you signed a pre-nuptial agreement is fine, but Sussane and I cannot possibly know what was contained in that agreement...to tell you "you won't have to give any share of your property to him" is not a reasonable thing to say from our standpoint. After all, we have no copy of that agreement to back up that sort of statement.

I'm sorry if you've been led down the wrong path.

Please get legal counsel right away, for your own protection and piece of mind.
Posted on: 15th Jul, 2011 12:29 pm
Hey George... The poster mentions in the post subject: "before i get married, i sign the print-up. what his is his, what mine is mine." Reading this, I thought that the pre-nup agreement actually mentions the clause - what his is his, what mine is mine . I may be wrong... Thanks for correcting me! :-)
Posted on: 15th Jul, 2011 08:39 pm
I'd be so extraordinarily surprised to find that a pre-nuptial agreement would actually contain the words, "what's his is his and what's mine is mine." That would only invite a serious fight as to how "his" and "mine" are defined. The legal battle would be so protracted as to negate the entire agreement in all likelihood.

When we don't know what's contained in a document, we can't truly provide much in the way of assistance to people. Also, when the best the poster can do is call it a "print-up" that would seem to indicate that the poster may not have a whole lot of awareness of what's contained in the agreement to begin with.
Posted on: 18th Jul, 2011 11:50 am
You didn't mention what State you live in - I live in California, so I'm only aware of how it works here.

California is a community property State, so any property acquired while married belongs to both Spouses 50/50, with the exception of property given to one of the Spouses from an inheritance. Any property owned prior to the marriage belongs to that person, not both of them.
Posted on: 30th Jul, 2011 07:14 am
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