I am in the process of refinancing my first mortgage with the bank that is holding my 2nd mortgage. I was approved for the [url=http://www.mortgagefit.com/refinance.html]refinance[/url] on the first but am awaiting approval for subordination on the 2nd. Since my house was appraised 20,000 less then it was 5 years ago I am now upside down on my mortgage by 2000.00. I felt that If i refinanced with the same bank that was holding my 2nd mortgage there would not be an issue in regards to the 2nd as long as I was approved for the first, which I was. Due to my equity postion and their "guidelines" it could be refused. I have excellent credit and job history. The title to the house is in my ex-husbands name and my own. Due to his pending bankruptcy it is important that I get this out of his name and into mine ASAP. I guess my questions is, why would they refuse to subordinate a loan they already hold? I have to pay it weather they subordinate or not.