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I have a question and maybe yo

I have a question and maybe yo

I have a question and maybe you can assist. I have a cosigner on a mortgage who is my exhusband who I remain friends. He is also considered to be the "coborrower" on the mortgage. Our lender is stating that we both "intend to occupy" the home and he will also be on the home owner's insurance. In both cases he will be considered as primary resident of the home. Here is my question. Why is it that he has to be consisered primary resident if he is the cosigner? I thought I made it clear when we applied for the initial loan application. Seems things were more informal then terms kicked in as all of the paperwork started. My ex inherited a home where he currently resides, has home insurance as his primary residence and our 2nd home where we lived as a married couple which he plans to rent until he sells. So he currently owns 2 homes. I wanted to purchase my own home and he was just going to help me with cosgining etc. Now it has turned out to be a much bigger deal. Is there anything we can do to clarify? Are all Lender's the same way with the cosigner terms? Any advice or suggestions would be helpful. Also, do you know if I can put my name only on the title since in reality I am paying for the home 100 percent, and I will be paying half of the house price as down payment going in.


Anonymous's picture
Anonymous (not verified)
1-12-2010

2 Answers
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1
As far as I know, it is not mandatory for the co-signer to stay in the property. You should contact other lenders and check out if they can let you stay in the property alone while allowing your ex-husband to be the co-signer of the property.

adonis | Asked on 2011-09-23


1
Your husband can be a non occupying owner on the loan. If you would like to discuss your other options, feel free to call me at 512 686 2750. (Bart) I lend nationwide.

adonis | Asked on 2011-09-27

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